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RBT practice test: Behavior Reduction, set 9

Set 9 of 9 for content area D, Behavior Reduction (14 of the 75 scored exam questions). Every answer is explained.

31 questions
  1. Question 1A client has an intense tantrum in a grocery store, and onlookers gather and ask questions. What should the RBT do?

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    A: Follow the plan's safety steps and share nothing about the client. During a public crisis, the RBT keeps the client safe by following the plan and protects the client's privacy. Client information is not shared with the public.

    • B: Sharing a client's diagnosis with strangers breaches confidentiality.
    • C: Untrained bystanders should not be part of physical procedures.
    • D: Leaving the client during a crisis is unsafe.

    Task D.7 · 40-hour curriculum section E · RBT Ethics Code 2.08 · RBT Ethics Code 2.10

  2. Question 2At home, a teen hits the table when told that video-game time is over. Nothing else is asked of the teen afterward. The caregiver often allows 10 more minutes of play, and the hitting stops. Which function does this pattern suggest?

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    B: Access to the activity. Hitting follows the loss of a preferred activity and is followed by getting the activity back. Tangible functions include access to preferred activities as well as objects.

    • A: Nothing is demanded after game time ends, so there is no task to escape.
    • C: The caregiver's response is to restore the game, and that is what ends the hitting.
    • D: The behavior occurs when a socially controlled activity is removed and stops when it is returned.

    Task D.1 · 40-hour curriculum section A

  3. Question 3Which of these is a consequence-based procedure rather than an antecedent intervention?

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    B: DRA. DRA delivers reinforcement after a specific alternative behavior, so it is a consequence procedure. The other three change conditions before behavior.

    • A: NCR is time-based and is classed as an antecedent intervention.
    • C: The high-p sequence arranges requests before the low-p request.
    • D: Demand fading changes the demands presented before behavior.

    Task D.2 · 40-hour curriculum section E

  4. Question 4A caregiver says DRO means "reward the child for doing something else, like a specific good behavior." Is that accurate?

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    A: No; DRO reinforces the absence of the problem behavior. Despite its name, DRO does not target a specific behavior. It reinforces the absence of the problem behavior during the interval. Reinforcing a specific behavior is DRA.

    • B: Reinforcing a specific replacement behavior is DRA.
    • C: Reinforcing a low rate is DRL.
    • D: Time-based delivery regardless of behavior is NCR.

    Task D.3 · 40-hour curriculum section E

  5. Question 5An RBT is busy with paperwork and does not respond when a client politely asks for help. After several days, the client stops asking and starts grabbing the RBT's arm instead. Which process most likely weakened the polite requests?

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    C: Extinction. The polite requests stopped producing help, so they went through extinction. This is a reminder that appropriate behavior can be extinguished by accident if it is not reinforced.

    • A: Nothing the client had was taken away after asking; the help simply stopped coming.
    • B: Satiation means the reinforcer lost value from too much access, but the client still wants help.
    • D: Generalization is behavior spreading to new stimuli, not a behavior weakening.

    Task D.4 · 40-hour curriculum section E

  6. Question 6A client hits an RBT during a session. The RBT is upset and wants to take away the client's favorite toy for the rest of the day, which the plan does not include. What should the RBT do?

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    A: Use only the plan's consequences and report the incident. RBTs use punishment procedures only as written in the plan. After an incident, they document it and report to the supervisor, who decides whether the plan needs to change.

    • B: Using an unplanned consequence is outside the RBT's role.
    • C: This is still an unplanned punishment procedure.
    • D: The caregiver choosing a consequence does not make it part of the plan.

    Task D.5 · 40-hour curriculum section E · RBT Ethics Code 2.05 · RBT Ethics Code 2.02

  7. Question 7Which statement about extinction bursts is accurate?

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    C: They can happen even when extinction is done correctly. An extinction burst is a common effect of correctly withholding the maintaining reinforcer. It is a reason to stay consistent, not a sign of failure.

    • A: A burst is a common effect of correct extinction.
    • B: Bursts happen when the right reinforcer is withheld.
    • D: Bursts can occur with any function placed on extinction.

    Task D.6 · 40-hour curriculum section E

  8. Question 8A client has a seizure during a session. The client's seizure protocol says to time it and call 911 if it lasts longer than 5 minutes. What should the RBT do?

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    D: Time the seizure, keep the client safe and follow the protocol. During a seizure, the RBT moves hazards away, protects the head, times the seizure and follows the client's seizure protocol, including when to call 911.

    • A: Restraining a person during a seizure can cause injury and does not stop the seizure.
    • B: Objects in the mouth can cause choking or injury.
    • C: Moving a person during a seizure can cause injury; hazards are moved away from them instead.

    Task D.7 · 40-hour curriculum section E · RBT Ethics Code 2.01

  9. Question 9For behavior maintained by escape from demands, which antecedent condition makes the behavior more likely?

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    C: Presenting difficult or nonpreferred tasks. Escape-maintained behavior is evoked by aversive demands, because those are what the behavior removes.

    • A: With no demands present, there is nothing to escape.
    • B: Withholding attention sets the occasion for attention-maintained behavior.
    • D: Removing a preferred item sets the occasion for tangible-maintained behavior.

    Task D.1 · 40-hour curriculum section A

  10. Question 10An NCR plan says to deliver attention every 90 seconds whether or not problem behavior has occurred. The client screamed just before the 90-second mark, so the RBT skipped that delivery to avoid rewarding screaming. What is the problem?

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    D: The RBT changed the plan; delivery should follow the time schedule. The plan sets delivery by time, not by behavior. Skipping deliveries makes attention depend on behavior and changes the procedure. Concerns about timing go to the supervisor.

    • A: The plan specifies delivery regardless of behavior; skipping it is a fidelity error.
    • B: Extra attention after screaming would deliver attention contingent on screaming.
    • C: Restarting the session is not part of the plan.

    Task D.2 · 40-hour curriculum section E · RBT Ethics Code 2.02

  11. Question 11A teen earns 10 minutes of video-game time for each half-hour with two or fewer curse words. Which procedure is this?

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    B: DRL. Reinforcement is earned when cursing stays at or below a set number in each period, which is interval DRL.

    • A: DRO would require no cursing in the half-hour.
    • C: DRA would reinforce a specific alternative behavior.
    • D: DRI would reinforce a behavior incompatible with cursing.

    Task D.3 · 40-hour curriculum section E

  12. Question 12Why should an RBT record every occurrence of the target behavior while an extinction procedure is in place?

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    D: So the supervisor can see the pattern and judge whether the procedure is working. Extinction often produces a temporary increase before a decrease. Complete, accurate data let the supervisor tell a burst from a failing procedure and make decisions.

    • A: Ending or changing a procedure is the supervisor's decision.
    • B: Showing records to the client is not the purpose of extinction data.
    • C: Extinction data are not used to choose punishers; they show progress.

    Task D.4 · 40-hour curriculum section E · RBT Ethics Code 2.02

  13. Question 13A plan uses a 2-minute time-out for a child's hitting, but hitting has not decreased. The RBT notices that outside of time-out, the child usually sits with few toys and little interaction. What is the most likely problem?

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    A: Time-in is not reinforcing enough for time-out to be a loss. Time-out removes access to reinforcement. If the time-in environment offers little reinforcement, time-out takes away almost nothing, so it will not reduce behavior. The RBT shares this observation with the supervisor.

    • B: Time-out does not need to be long; it works when time-in is more reinforcing than time-out.
    • C: Nonexclusionary and exclusionary time-out can both work.
    • D: An extinction burst follows extinction, not time-out.

    Task D.5 · 40-hour curriculum section E

  14. Question 14A client uses functional communication to ask for help instead of crying. What can the RBT do to lower the risk of resurgence of the crying?

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    D: Keep reinforcing the requests for help as the plan specifies. Resurgence is triggered when reinforcement for the replacement behavior stops or drops. Consistently reinforcing the replacement behavior as written protects against it; any planned thinning is set by the supervisor.

    • A: Unplanned lapses in reinforcing the request are what produce resurgence.
    • B: Removing reinforcement for the replacement behavior is a common trigger for resurgence.
    • C: Reinforcing crying keeps it strong and makes it harder to extinguish.

    Task D.6 · 40-hour curriculum section E

  15. Question 15The behavior plan lists escape as the function of a client's problem behavior. Over several sessions, the RBT notices the behavior seems to happen mostly when a sibling gets the caregiver's attention. What should the RBT do?

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    A: Record what happens before and after, and tell the supervisor. RBTs collect data and report what they observe; the supervisor decides whether the function or plan needs to change. Clear ABC data help the supervisor make that decision.

    • B: Changing strategies without the supervisor departs from the plan; the RBT reports instead.
    • C: New patterns may matter; the supervisor needs to know about them.
    • D: Interpreting the function and changing the plan are the supervisor's role, not the RBT's.

    Task D.1 · 40-hour curriculum section A · RBT Ethics Code 2.06

  16. Question 16How do antecedent interventions reduce problem behavior?

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    B: By changing conditions before the behavior occurs. Antecedent interventions change what happens before behavior, such as motivating operations, task difficulty or available reinforcers, so problem behavior is less likely to occur in the first place.

    • A: Consequences delivered after behavior are consequence-based procedures, not antecedent interventions.
    • C: Withholding the reinforcer after behavior is extinction.
    • D: Adding an aversive event after behavior is positive punishment.

    Task D.2 · 40-hour curriculum section E

  17. Question 17Which statement correctly contrasts DRO and DRL?

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    D: DRO reinforces zero occurrences; DRL reinforces a low rate. DRO reinforces the absence of the target behavior for an interval. DRL reinforces the behavior when it occurs at or below a set rate.

    • A: This reverses the two procedures.
    • B: Reinforcing a specific alternative is DRA.
    • C: Because DRL still allows the behavior, it is not used for dangerous behavior.

    Task D.3 · 40-hour curriculum section E

  18. Question 18Two clients have problem behavior maintained by attention. For one client, attention followed the behavior every time. For the other, attention followed it only now and then, unpredictably. If both are placed on extinction, which behavior will probably persist longer?

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    A: The behavior that was reinforced unpredictably. Behavior with a history of intermittent, especially variable, reinforcement is more resistant to extinction than behavior that was reinforced every time.

    • B: Behavior reinforced on a continuous schedule usually extinguishes faster than intermittently reinforced behavior.
    • C: The schedule of past reinforcement affects how long behavior persists during extinction.
    • D: Extinction does not end behavior immediately, and resistance differs with the reinforcement history.

    Task D.4 · 40-hour curriculum section E

  19. Question 19Response cost had reduced a client's interrupting. When the supervisor removed response cost from the plan and nothing else changed, interrupting returned to its baseline level. What is this effect called?

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    A: Recovery from punishment. When a punishment contingency ends, the behavior often returns toward its earlier level, because the reinforcer that maintains it is still available. This is called recovery from punishment.

    • B: No reinforcer was withheld; a punishment contingency was removed.
    • C: Resurgence follows lost reinforcement for an alternative behavior, which is not described.
    • D: Spontaneous recovery refers to extinguished behavior returning after time away.

    Task D.6 · 40-hour curriculum section E

  20. Question 20What does it mean when a behavior is maintained by automatic reinforcement?

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    D: The behavior itself produces the reinforcing outcome. Automatic reinforcement means the behavior itself produces the reinforcing consequence, such as a sensation, so no other person needs to be involved.

    • A: Reinforcing every response is continuous reinforcement, a schedule, not a function.
    • B: Time-based delivery regardless of behavior is noncontingent reinforcement.
    • C: Unintended reinforcement from staff is still social reinforcement, because another person delivers it.

    Task D.1 · 40-hour curriculum section A

  21. Question 21Which antecedent change could reduce escape-maintained behavior during academic work?

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    A: Shorter tasks with a choice of materials. Shorter tasks and choices make the work less aversive before problem behavior can occur, which lowers motivation to escape.

    • B: Ending work after problem behavior reinforces escape-maintained behavior.
    • C: A reprimand is a consequence, not an antecedent change.
    • D: Time-out is a consequence, and for escape-maintained behavior it may give the escape the behavior is maintained by.

    Task D.2 · 40-hour curriculum section E

  22. Question 22What does functional communication training (FCT) teach?

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    C: A request for the reinforcer behind the problem behavior. FCT teaches an appropriate way to communicate for the reinforcer that maintains problem behavior, such as asking for a break instead of hitting to escape work.

    • A: Teaching labels is tact training, not FCT.
    • B: Waiting may be taught later, but FCT first teaches a request for the reinforcer.
    • D: FCT is function-based: the response must produce the reinforcer that maintains the problem behavior.

    Task D.3 · 40-hour curriculum section E

  23. Question 23While a client's attention-maintained yelling is on extinction, the client tries several behaviors the RBT has never seen them use: waving, tapping the table and humming loudly. What is this called?

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    B: Response variation. During extinction, people often try new forms of behavior. This response variation is a common secondary effect of extinction.

    • A: Spontaneous recovery is the return of the original behavior after time away.
    • C: Resurgence is the return of previously reinforced behavior, not new forms.
    • D: Behavioral contrast is a change in another setting, not new forms in this one.

    Task D.6 · 40-hour curriculum section E

  24. Question 24In the supervisor's functional analysis, a preferred toy is taken away at the start of one condition and returned for a short time after each instance of problem behavior. Behavior is highest in this condition. What function does this suggest?

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    C: Access to tangibles. This is the tangible condition. High behavior when problem behavior produces the toy suggests the behavior is maintained by access to the item.

    • A: Attention is tested in a different condition, where attention follows problem behavior.
    • B: No tasks are presented in the tangible condition.
    • D: The behavior was highest when it produced a socially delivered item, which points to a social function.

    Task D.1 · 40-hour curriculum section A

  25. Question 25Demand fading is most often used for problem behavior maintained by which function?

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    A: Escape from demands. Demand fading reduces the aversive demands that evoke escape-maintained behavior and then reintroduces them gradually.

    • B: Attention-maintained behavior is addressed by changing access to attention, not by changing demands.
    • C: Tangible-maintained behavior is tied to access to items.
    • D: Automatically reinforced behavior is not maintained by removal of demands.

    Task D.2 · 40-hour curriculum section E

  26. Question 26What makes DRI different from other forms of DRA?

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    C: The alternative is physically incompatible. DRI is a type of DRA in which the reinforced alternative is physically incompatible with the problem behavior, such as sitting in a seat versus walking around the room.

    • A: Reinforcing the absence of problem behavior describes DRO.
    • B: Reinforcing a lower rate describes DRL.
    • D: DRI, like other differential reinforcement, uses reinforcement and not punishment.

    Task D.3 · 40-hour curriculum section E

  27. Question 27An RBT is implementing overcorrection written in a client's plan. Partway through, the client pulls away and runs from the RBT. Which side effect of punishment is this?

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    A: Escape. Escape means getting away from an aversive situation that is already happening. Running from the overcorrection procedure is escape; avoiding the RBT before it starts would be avoidance.

    • B: An extinction burst happens when a reinforcer is withheld, not during punishment.
    • C: Resurgence is an old behavior returning when an alternative loses reinforcement.
    • D: Spontaneous recovery is an extinguished behavior reappearing after time away.

    Task D.6 · 40-hour curriculum section E

  28. Question 28In a high-probability request sequence, what should the RBT do if the client follows the low-p request?

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    C: Deliver the reinforcer the plan lists. Compliance with the low-p request is the goal of the sequence, so it is reinforced as the plan directs.

    • A: Skipping reinforcement for the target compliance weakens it.
    • B: The sequence is used before a low-p request; it is not repeated right after compliance.
    • D: Withholding reinforcement for compliance makes future compliance less likely.

    Task D.2 · 40-hour curriculum section E

  29. Question 29A plan uses fixed 2-minute DRO intervals (0:00-2:00, 2:00-4:00 and so on) in a 10-minute session. A token is given at the end of each interval with no hitting; the timer does not reset. Hitting occurs at 1:30, 5:10 and 5:50. How many tokens does the client earn?

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    C: 3. There are 5 intervals. Hitting at 1:30 falls in the first interval, and hitting at 5:10 and 5:50 both fall in the third (4:00-6:00). The second, fourth and fifth intervals had no hitting, so 3 tokens are earned.

    • A: 2 subtracts one token per hit, but two hits fell in the same interval.
    • B: 4 counts only one lost interval; both the first and third intervals contained hitting.
    • D: 5 ignores the hitting; two of the five intervals contained it.

    Task D.3 · 40-hour curriculum section E

  30. Question 30Which is a common side effect of punishment?

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    D: Crying, anger or aggression. Emotional responses, such as crying, anger and aggression, are well-known side effects of punishment, along with escape and avoidance.

    • A: Punishment does not teach new skills; it only reduces behavior.
    • B: Punishment more often makes the person who delivers it aversive.
    • C: If the behavior increases, the consequence was not a punisher.

    Task D.6 · 40-hour curriculum section E

  31. Question 31In a high-probability request sequence, which requests are used as the high-p requests?

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    C: Requests the client reliably follows. High-p requests are ones the client has a strong history of following. Quick compliance with them, followed by reinforcement, comes right before the low-p request.

    • A: Requests the client rarely follows are low-p requests.
    • B: New skills are not yet reliable, so they would not produce a run of compliance.
    • D: Hard requests would lower the chance of compliance during the sequence.

    Task D.2 · 40-hour curriculum section E

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What this test covers

5 easier, 16 exam-level and 10 harder questions. Each task link opens its study page.