RBT practice test: Behavior Assessment, set 2
Set 2 of 5 for content area B, Behavior Assessment (8 of the 75 scored exam questions). Every answer is explained.
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Question 1In a functional analysis session, the client plays with a tablet briefly, and then the RBT takes it away. Each time the client screams, the RBT gives the tablet back for 30 seconds. Which condition is this?
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D: Tangible condition. In the tangible condition, a preferred item is removed and returned briefly after problem behavior. This tests whether access to the item maintains the behavior.
- A: In the attention condition, problem behavior produces attention, not an item.
- B: In the escape condition, problem behavior produces a break from tasks.
- C: In the alone condition, problem behavior produces no social consequences.
Task B.3 · 40-hour curriculum section D
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Question 2A client chooses from an array of five toys. After each brief play period, the RBT puts the chosen toy back in the array with the others for the next trial. Which preference assessment is this?
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B: Multiple stimulus with replacement. Returning the chosen item to the array on every trial is what defines multiple stimulus with replacement (MSW).
- A: A paired-stimulus assessment presents two items per trial.
- C: Single-stimulus assessment presents one item at a time.
- D: In MSWO, the chosen item is left out of the array.
Task B.1 · 40-hour curriculum section D
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Question 3An RBT points to a toy across the room, says, "Look!" and records whether the child turns to look at the toy. Which skill is being assessed?
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B: Responding to joint attention. Following another person's point or gaze to share attention to an object is responding to joint attention, a social communication skill.
- A: A mand would be the child requesting the toy.
- C: A tact would be the child naming the toy.
- D: Motor imitation would be the child copying the RBT's movement.
Task B.2 · 40-hour curriculum section D
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Question 4Which list names the three general types of functional assessment methods?
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A: Indirect assessment, descriptive assessment and functional analysis. Functional assessment includes indirect methods (interviews, rating scales), descriptive methods (direct observation in the natural setting, such as ABC data) and functional analysis (testing conditions directly).
- B: These are other kinds of assessments, not functional assessment methods.
- C: These are continuous measurement procedures.
- D: These are phases of intervention, not assessment methods.
Task B.3 · 40-hour curriculum section D
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Question 5When preparing to run a supervisor's preference assessment protocol, what should the RBT do first?
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B: Review the protocol and gather the items. Preparing for an assessment means knowing the procedure and having the listed items ready, in the right setting, before the client arrives at the table.
- A: Items come from the supervisor's protocol, not the RBT's choice.
- C: Choosing reinforcers for programs is directed by the supervisor based on the results.
- D: The supervisor chooses the format.
Task B.1 · 40-hour curriculum section D · 40-hour curriculum section B
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Question 6A social skills checklist includes "responds to a peer's greeting." During the whole observation, no peer greets the client. How should the RBT record this item?
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B: Record that there was no opportunity to observe the skill. A skill can only be scored when the situation calls for it. Recording "no opportunity" tells the supervisor the item still needs to be observed, instead of wrongly suggesting a deficit.
- A: Scoring "not demonstrated" suggests the client failed when there was no chance to respond.
- C: Scoring a skill that was not seen is not based on the observation.
- D: An adult greeting is not a peer greeting, so it does not test the item as written.
Task B.2 · 40-hour curriculum section D
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Question 7Besides the antecedent, behavior and consequence, which information is most useful to record on an ABC data sheet?
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B: The time, the activity and the people present. Context such as the time, the activity and who was present helps the supervisor spot patterns in when and where behavior happens.
- A: Guesses about mood are not observable.
- C: Diagnosis and insurance details do not describe the event and add confidential information that is not needed.
- D: Opinions about other people are not objective data.
Task B.3 · 40-hour curriculum section D · RBT Ethics Code 2.10
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Question 8Before a home MSWO, the RBT notices a sibling's tablet on the couch near the table. Why should it be put out of sight before the assessment begins?
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B: Items outside the array can draw the client's choices. Preparing the setting includes removing competing items. A visible preferred item outside the array can draw the client's attention and distort the results.
- A: Removing a distraction is not a deprivation procedure.
- C: Items are chosen by the supervisor; a stray item is not added because it is nearby.
- D: Seeing an item does not cause satiation on other items.
Task B.1 · 40-hour curriculum section D
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Question 9In January, a client passed 8 of the 40 items on a skills assessment. In June, the client passed 20 of the same 40 items. By how many percentage points did the client's score increase?
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C: 30 percentage points. January: 8 ÷ 40 × 100 = 20%. June: 20 ÷ 40 × 100 = 50%. The increase is 50% − 20% = 30 percentage points.
- A: 12 is the increase in the number of items (20 − 8), not in percentage points.
- B: 20% is the January score, not the increase.
- D: 50% is the June score, not the increase.
Task B.2 · 40-hour curriculum section D · Task A.6
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Question 10During an ABC observation in a classroom, a student keeps looking at the RBT, and the student's problem behavior is much lower than the teacher reports for other days. What may be happening?
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C: Reactivity. Reactivity is a change in behavior because the person knows they are being observed. It can make observation data unrepresentative, so it should be reported to the supervisor.
- A: Observer drift is a change in how an observer applies a definition over time.
- B: An extinction burst is a temporary increase in behavior when reinforcement stops.
- D: Spontaneous recovery is the return of an extinguished behavior after time has passed.
Task B.3 · 40-hour curriculum section D · Task A.8
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Question 11A supervisor asks the RBT to run an MSWO three times and combine the results. What is the main reason for repeating it?
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D: To get a steadier, more trustworthy ranking. One administration can be affected by chance or by the client's state that day. Combining several administrations gives a more stable ranking.
- A: The client is not being taught an order.
- B: Testing reinforcing effects requires a reinforcer assessment.
- C: Satiation is something the procedure tries to limit, not create.
Task B.1 · 40-hour curriculum section D
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Question 12Why do skills assessments record a client's strengths as well as their deficits?
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B: Strengths show what the client can already do, which teaching can build on. Knowing what a client already does well tells the team where to start teaching and which existing skills can support new ones. Deficits show what still needs to be taught.
- A: Skills the client already has usually do not need to be taught; goals focus on deficits.
- C: What maintains problem behavior is found through functional assessment, not skill strengths.
- D: Reinforcers are identified through preference and reinforcer assessments.
Task B.2 · 40-hour curriculum section D
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Question 13ABC data show that a teacher reprimands a student after nearly every instance of calling out. Why can't the team conclude from this alone that attention maintains the calling out?
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B: ABC data show what tends to follow behavior, not what causes it. Descriptive data show correlations. Adults often respond to problem behavior whatever its function, so a consequence that regularly follows a behavior is not proven to maintain it.
- A: Reprimands can work as reinforcers when attention maintains behavior.
- C: ABC data are often collected in classrooms.
- D: Calling out can be defined objectively (for example, speaking without being called on).
Task B.3 · 40-hour curriculum section D
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Question 14In a paired-stimulus assessment, a puzzle is presented 8 times and the client chooses it 6 times. What is the puzzle's selection percentage?
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C: 75%. Selection percentage = times chosen ÷ times presented × 100 = 6 ÷ 8 × 100 = 75%.
- A: 25% is the percentage of times the puzzle was not chosen (2 ÷ 8).
- B: 60% would be 6 out of 10, not 6 out of 8.
- D: 80% would be 6.4 out of 8, not 6 out of 8.
Task B.1 · 40-hour curriculum section D
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Question 15A supervisor asks a caregiver to fill out a questionnaire about which dressing and grooming skills their teenager does without help at home. What kind of skill assessment method is this?
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C: An indirect assessment. Questionnaires, interviews and rating scales collect information from people who know the client instead of observing the client directly. These are indirect methods.
- A: Direct observation means watching the client perform the skill and recording it.
- B: A functional analysis tests the function of problem behavior by arranging conditions.
- D: Permanent product recording measures a lasting outcome of behavior, such as completed worksheets.
Task B.2 · 40-hour curriculum section D
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Question 16A client starts screaming while sitting alone with a puzzle. No one has spoken to the client for about 5 minutes. How should the RBT record the antecedent?
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B: Alone with puzzle; no adult interaction for about 5 minutes. The antecedent includes the conditions just before the behavior, including the absence of attention. Writing this objectively gives the supervisor useful information without guessing the function.
- A: The lack of interaction is an important antecedent condition, so "nothing happened" loses information.
- C: "Bored" is a guess about an inner state.
- D: "Wanted attention" is a guess about function, not an observation.
Task B.3 · 40-hour curriculum section D
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Question 17Which stimuli can be included in a preference assessment?
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C: Foods, toys, activities, and social interactions. Preference assessments can include edibles, tangibles, activities, and social interactions such as praise or tickles, chosen by the supervisor for the client.
- A: Many types of stimuli can be assessed, and not every client prefers food.
- B: Familiar items are commonly included; novelty is not required.
- D: Activities and social interactions can also be assessed.
Task B.1 · 40-hour curriculum section D
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Question 18A report shared with the treatment team states that a 4-year-old's communication score is well below the average for children of the same age. Which type of assessment produces this kind of comparison?
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A: A norm-referenced assessment. Norm-referenced assessments compare a person's score with scores from a large sample of people of the same age, so results are reported as above, at or below the average for that age.
- B: A criterion-referenced assessment compares performance with a set mastery standard, not with peers' scores.
- C: A functional analysis tests what maintains problem behavior; it does not compare scores with peers.
- D: A paired-stimulus preference assessment ranks preferred items.
Task B.2 · 40-hour curriculum section D
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Question 19The safety rules for a functional analysis say to end a session if self-injury causes visible injury. During a session, the client's head hitting causes a cut above the eye. What should the RBT do?
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A: End the session as the safety rules state and tell the supervisor. Functional analyses are run with safety rules set by the supervisor. The client's safety comes first, so the RBT follows the termination rules and reports right away.
- B: Complete data are never more important than the client's safety or the termination rules.
- C: The rules call for ending the session, not continuing it.
- D: Changing conditions on one's own and not reporting an injury both break the protocol.
Task B.3 · 40-hour curriculum section D · RBT Ethics Code 2.01
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Question 20Why are edible items in a paired-stimulus assessment usually given in small pieces?
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D: To limit satiation during the assessment. Small portions give the client a taste without filling them up, so the value of food stays relatively stable across many trials.
- A: Counting pieces is not the reason for portion size.
- B: Items are meant to look like themselves so the client can tell them apart.
- C: Small portions limit satiation; they do not create deprivation.
Task B.1 · 40-hour curriculum section D
Answer every question to see your score.
What this test covers
| Task | Questions |
|---|---|
| B.1 Preference assessments | 7 |
| B.2 Skill assessments | 6 |
| B.3 Functional assessment | 7 |
3 easier, 11 exam-level and 6 harder questions. Each task link opens its study page.