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RBT practice test: Behavior Acquisition, set 7

Set 7 of 12 for content area C, Behavior Acquisition (19 of the 75 scored exam questions). Every answer is explained.

20 questions
  1. Question 1A client's backup menu lists a sticker for 3 tokens and 10 minutes of a game for 8 tokens. The client has 14 tokens, wants the game, and then wants as many stickers as the remaining tokens allow. How many stickers can the client get?

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    B: 2 stickers. After the game, 14 - 8 = 6 tokens remain. 6 / 3 = 2 stickers, with no tokens left over.

    • A: 1 sticker uses only 3 of the 6 remaining tokens.
    • C: 3 stickers would cost 9 tokens, but only 6 remain after the game.
    • D: 4 stickers is 14 / 3 rounded down, which forgets to subtract the game first.

    Task C.11 · 40-hour curriculum section E

  2. Question 2Once a skill is well established, a supervisor plans to move from reinforcing every response to reinforcing only some responses. What is one main reason?

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    D: Behavior on intermittent schedules tends to keep occurring longer when reinforcement stops.. Behavior maintained on intermittent schedules is usually more resistant to extinction, and thinner schedules are closer to what the client will meet in natural settings. That is why schedules are thinned after acquisition.

    • A: Continuous reinforcement, not intermittent, usually produces the fastest acquisition.
    • B: On any reinforcement schedule, the reinforcer still depends on the behavior.
    • C: No schedule guarantees that an extinction burst will never occur.

    Task C.1 · 40-hour curriculum section A

  3. Question 3A teen earns check marks on a card for each completed chore, and 10 check marks can be traded for 30 minutes of video game time. In this system, what are the check marks?

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    D: Conditioned reinforcers. The check marks have no value on their own; they gain value because they can be exchanged for video game time. That makes them conditioned reinforcers (tokens).

    • A: Unconditioned reinforcers need no learning history, but check marks gain their value through exchange.
    • B: The video game time is the backup reinforcer; the check marks are what is exchanged for it.
    • C: An abolishing operation reduces the value of a reinforcer; check marks are delivered as consequences.

    Task C.2 · 40-hour curriculum section E

  4. Question 4In a school setting, a teen earns 20 seconds of tablet time after each correct sight-word response. After one trial, the teen is still using the tablet two minutes later. What should the RBT do?

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    B: End access on time per the plan, then run the next trial. The amount of reinforcement is part of the plan. Ending access on time keeps the contingency consistent and helps prevent satiation; trouble with ending access should be reported to the supervisor.

    • A: Open-ended access changes the reinforcer and cuts down on teaching time.
    • C: Withholding earned reinforcement breaks the plan's contingency.
    • D: Changing the amount of reinforcement is a plan change for the supervisor to make.

    Task C.3 · 40-hour curriculum section E

  5. Question 5During a real grocery trip, an RBT teaches an adult client to ask a store employee where an item is, as part of the client's actual shopping. Which teaching approach is this?

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    A: Natural environment training. Natural environment training teaches skills where and when they are actually used, with the natural result (finding the item) as the reinforcer.

    • B: DTT uses repeated, adult-led trials, usually in a structured setting, not one real request during shopping.
    • C: Precision teaching focuses on building fluency with timed practice and charting.
    • D: Backward chaining teaches the last step of a chain first; a single request is not a chained task.

    Task C.4 · 40-hour curriculum section E

  6. Question 6A 15-step laundry task analysis is scored as independent, prompted or not done. An adult client is independent on 6 steps, prompted on 7 steps and does not do 2 steps. The plan counts only independent steps. What percentage of steps were independent?

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    A: 40%. Independent steps divided by all steps in the task analysis: 6 / 15 = 0.40, or 40%. Prompted and missed steps both count as not independent.

    • B: 86.7% adds prompted steps to independent ones (13 / 15).
    • C: 46.2% divides by 13 instead of the 15 steps in the task (6 / 13).
    • D: 13.3% is the percentage of steps not done (2 / 15).

    Task C.5 · 40-hour curriculum section E

  7. Question 7In a two-card program ("Touch spoon" and "Touch fork"), a client has scored between 45% and 55% correct for three weeks. What is the most accurate reading of these data?

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    A: The client is performing near the level that guessing between two cards would produce. With two choices, a learner who guesses will be correct about half the time. Steady scores around 50% suggest the instruction is not yet controlling the choice. The RBT reports this to the supervisor, who decides on any change to the program.

    • B: With two cards, about 50% correct is what random choice produces, so it does not show partial learning.
    • C: An overall percentage cannot show this; the client could be choosing at random or always choosing one card or side.
    • D: Scores that stay between 45% and 55% for three weeks are flat, with no increasing trend.

    Task C.6 · 40-hour curriculum section E

  8. Question 8An 8-year-old's plan uses partial physical prompts. Today the child pulls their arm away and says "No touch" each time the RBT starts a physical prompt. What should the RBT do?

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    A: Stop the physical prompt, follow any steps the plan gives for this, and contact the supervisor. Pulling away and saying "No touch" signal that the child is withdrawing assent to physical prompts. The RBT stops, follows any plan steps for this situation, and contacts the supervisor for direction instead of forcing the prompt.

    • B: Pushing through clear signs that the child does not want to be touched risks harm and ignores the child's withdrawal of assent.
    • C: Continuing without checking with the supervisor ignores the child's objection and delays needed direction.
    • D: Changing the prompting procedure is the supervisor's decision.

    Task C.7 · 40-hour curriculum section E · RBT Ethics Code 2.01 · RBT Ethics Code 2.06

  9. Question 9Which action by an RBT is an example of programming common stimuli?

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    A: Using the same type of picture schedule at the clinic as at school. Programming common stimuli means making the teaching setting share important stimuli with the setting where the skill is needed. Using the same kind of picture schedule in both places gives the client a familiar cue in each setting.

    • B: An unpredictable reinforcement schedule is the indiscriminable contingencies strategy.
    • C: Varying the wording of instructions is part of training loosely.
    • D: Teaching with many pictures of one object is multiple exemplar training.

    Task C.8 · 40-hour curriculum section E

  10. Question 10A target meets the mastery criterion written in the plan. What is the RBT's next step?

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    D: Record the data and follow the plan's steps for maintenance. Meeting mastery means the target is ready to move from acquisition to maintenance as the plan describes. The supervisor reviews the data and decides on new targets.

    • A: Dropping a mastered skill completely risks losing it; mastered targets are usually maintained.
    • B: Choosing new targets is the supervisor's role, not the RBT's.
    • C: Continuing acquisition-level teaching after mastery does not prepare the skill to last under everyday conditions.

    Task C.9 · 40-hour curriculum section A

  11. Question 11A plan shapes a client's pencil grip: first reinforcing a fist grip that touches the paper, then a grip with fingers on the pencil, then a three-finger grip. Which statement best describes this program?

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    C: The form of the response changes across the steps. Each step reinforces a different form (topography) of grasping that is closer to the target grip. This is shaping across response topographies.

    • A: The plan is about how the pencil is held, not about how long the client holds it.
    • B: The plan does not target the time between an instruction and the grasp.
    • D: These are versions of one behavior, holding the pencil, not separate steps linked in a sequence.

    Task C.10 · 40-hour curriculum section E

  12. Question 12The plan says that at exchange time the client chooses an item from a menu of backup reinforcers. To save time, the RBT picks the item for the client. What is the problem?

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    B: The plan includes client choice, which helps keep backups effective. Letting clients choose their backup reinforcer is part of this plan and allows them to pick what they want most at that moment, which helps keep the tokens valuable.

    • A: Cost is not the issue; skipping the client's choice is.
    • C: The plan sets no minimum number of tokens for choosing.
    • D: Changing the exchange into saving goes against the plan.

    Task C.11 · 40-hour curriculum section E

  13. Question 13Which statement about negative reinforcement is accurate?

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    C: It increases the future frequency of the behavior it follows.. All reinforcement, positive or negative, increases behavior. In negative reinforcement, the behavior removes, reduces or prevents a stimulus, and the behavior occurs more often in the future.

    • A: Taking away something the client likes to decrease behavior is negative punishment.
    • B: Punishment decreases behavior; negative reinforcement increases it.
    • D: Adding an unpleasant stimulus after behavior is positive punishment when the behavior decreases.

    Task C.1 · 40-hour curriculum section A

  14. Question 14Which of these is a conditioned reinforcer?

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    B: A gold star on a progress chart. A gold star has no value on its own; it becomes a reinforcer through a history of being paired with other reinforcers. That makes it a conditioned reinforcer.

    • A: Food for a hungry person is an unconditioned reinforcer; it needs no learning history.
    • C: Warmth for a cold person is an unconditioned reinforcer.
    • D: Water for a thirsty person is an unconditioned reinforcer.

    Task C.2 · 40-hour curriculum section E

  15. Question 15For a new target, a plan uses errorless teaching with a 0-second prompt delay. When should the RBT give the prompt?

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    A: At the same time as the instruction, or immediately after it. A 0-second prompt delay means the prompt comes right with the instruction, so the client responds correctly from the start. The delay is increased later as the plan directs.

    • B: Waiting before prompting is a later step in time delay, not a 0-second delay.
    • C: Prompting after errors is error correction; errorless teaching prompts before an error can happen.
    • D: The prompt is given with the instruction once the client is attending, or it will not help.

    Task C.3 · 40-hour curriculum section E

  16. Question 16In incidental teaching, what usually starts a teaching opportunity?

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    C: The learner shows interest in an item or activity. Incidental teaching is learner-initiated: the adult waits for the learner to reach for, look at, or ask about something they want, then uses that moment to prompt the target response.

    • A: A planned instruction at a table starts a discrete trial, not incidental teaching.
    • B: Incidental teaching follows the learner's interest, not a fixed schedule of trials.
    • D: Finishing a task is not what sets up the opportunity; the learner's interest is.

    Task C.4 · 40-hour curriculum section E

  17. Question 17An adult client's task analysis includes the step "Uses good hygiene." Why is this step a problem?

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    B: It is not a single observable action. Each step of a task analysis should be a specific, observable action. A vague step like this should be reported to the supervisor so it can be broken into clear steps.

    • A: Length is not the issue; the step does not name an observable action.
    • C: Many hygiene routines are taught with chaining.
    • D: Adults often have hygiene goals; the problem is how the step is written.

    Task C.5 · 40-hour curriculum section E

  18. Question 18In a discrimination program, a client has 20 trials and responds correctly on 16 of them. What percentage of trials were correct?

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    B: 80%. Percentage correct = correct trials ÷ total trials × 100. Here 16 ÷ 20 = 0.80, and 0.80 × 100 = 80%.

    • A: 75% would be 15 correct out of 20.
    • C: 16 is the number of correct trials, not the percentage; it must be divided by the total.
    • D: 20% is the percentage of incorrect trials (4 out of 20).

    Task C.6 · 40-hour curriculum section E

  19. Question 19Why is most-to-least prompting often chosen when teaching a brand-new skill?

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    B: It gives enough help from the start to keep errors low. Starting with a prompt that reliably produces the correct response keeps errors low while the skill is new. Help is then reduced step by step as the learner succeeds.

    • A: That describes least-to-most prompting.
    • C: Prompts given in most-to-least prompting must still be faded.
    • D: Most-to-least prompting often starts with physical prompts; it is not limited to verbal ones.

    Task C.7 · 40-hour curriculum section E

  20. Question 20A client answers "What's your name?" correctly every time the RBT asks, but does not answer when the same question is asked by the teacher, a parent or another RBT. What do these data show?

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    D: The skill has not generalized across people. Correct responding with one person but not with others means the response is under the control of that person. The skill has not yet generalized across people, which the supervisor needs to know.

    • A: The skill is not mastered in all conditions, because it fails with every person except the RBT.
    • B: Response generalization is the appearance of new response forms, not a lack of responding with new people.
    • C: Maintenance concerns performance over time; the issue here is performance with different people at the same point in time.

    Task C.8 · 40-hour curriculum section E

Answer every question to see your score.

What this test covers

4 easier, 13 exam-level and 3 harder questions. Each task link opens its study page.