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RBT practice test 31

25 questions across all six content areas, weighted like the real exam. Every answer is explained, including why each wrong option is wrong.

25 questions
  1. Question 1An RBT learns that a client's parent is a lawyer. The RBT has a personal legal problem. What should the RBT do?

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    C: Not ask the parent for legal advice. Asking a client's caregiver for personal professional services, free or paid, mixes roles and can create a conflict of interest. The RBT keeps the relationship focused on the client's services.

    • A: Free professional advice has real value and adds a personal benefit to the relationship.
    • B: The timing does not change the mixing of roles.
    • D: Paying the parent would create a business relationship, which is also a second role.

    Task F.7 · RBT Ethics Code 1.10 · RBT Ethics Code 1.11

  2. Question 2A plan's error correction says: after an error, present the same instruction again with an immediate model prompt, then present it once more without a prompt. The client points to the wrong card. What should the RBT do next?

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    B: Repeat the instruction with an immediate model prompt. The RBT carries out the error-correction procedure exactly as written: re-present the instruction with an immediate model so the client makes the correct response, then re-present it without a prompt.

    • A: Moving on skips the error-correction steps the plan requires.
    • C: Reinforcing an error, even with a smaller reinforcer, can strengthen errors, and the plan calls for correction.
    • D: The plan does not call for a reprimand or a second unprompted guess; it calls for a prompted repeat.

    Task C.3 · 40-hour curriculum section E · RBT Ethics Code 2.02

  3. Question 3The supervisor wants to know how long each of a client's crying episodes lasts, not just the total time spent crying. What should the RBT record?

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    D: The start and stop time of every episode. Duration per occurrence requires timing each episode separately. Recording when each episode starts and stops gives both the length of every episode and, added together, the total duration.

    • A: A single running total gives total duration but loses the length of each separate episode.
    • B: Checking at the end of each minute is momentary time sampling, which estimates crying rather than timing each episode.
    • C: A count shows how many episodes occurred but not how long any of them lasted.

    Task A.1 · 40-hour curriculum section C

  4. Question 4A plan says that when a client hits to get attention, the RBT should block the hit while giving as little attention as possible. Which response matches the plan?

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    C: Block the hit without eye contact or comments, then resume the activity. When behavior is dangerous, plans often combine blocking for safety with minimal attention. The RBT prevents harm while giving as little of the maintaining reinforcer as possible.

    • A: An explanation delivers attention after hitting.
    • B: Safety comes first; the plan calls for blocking.
    • D: A hug is attention right after hitting.

    Task D.4 · 40-hour curriculum section E

  5. Question 5An RBT has a health condition that now impairs their ability to provide services safely, and they have no effective care plan. Besides telling their supervisor, what does the RBT Ethics Code require?

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    B: Self-report to the BACB within 30 days. Standard 3.04 requires RBTs to self-report to the BACB, within 30 days, physical or mental conditions that may impair their ability to provide services safely. The RBT Handbook explains when a condition with an effective care plan does not need to be reported.

    • A: The duty to self-report does not wait for a client to be harmed.
    • C: Caregivers do not need the RBT's health details; the BACB does.
    • D: The deadline is 30 days, not the next recertification.

    Task F.2 · RBT Ethics Code 3.04 · RBT Handbook p. 24

  6. Question 6A client's hitting is maintained by escape from work. The plan teaches the client to hand over a "break" card, which always gets a short break, and hitting no longer leads to a break. Which procedure is this?

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    A: FCT. The client is taught a communication response that produces the same reinforcer (a break) as the problem behavior, while hitting no longer does. That is FCT.

    • B: DRO reinforces the absence of hitting over an interval, not a request.
    • C: NCR would give breaks on a time schedule, not after the card.
    • D: DRL reinforces hitting at a low rate, which the plan does not do.

    Task D.3 · 40-hour curriculum section E

  7. Question 7While preparing session materials, a coworker jokes about a client's family's religion. Which response is most consistent with the RBT Ethics Code?

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    B: Decline to join in and raise the concern with the supervisor. RBTs treat others equitably and do not harass or discriminate on the basis of religion or other characteristics (Standard 1.08). When they see conduct that conflicts with the code, they bring it to their supervisor.

    • A: Joining in supports demeaning treatment of the family.
    • C: Going to the family first is not the process the code describes.
    • D: Demeaning comments about a client's religion conflict with the code whether or not the family hears them.

    Task F.1 · RBT Ethics Code 1.08

  8. Question 8During the last week of services, a client's family invites the RBT to a $40 restaurant dinner, on them, to celebrate. What should the RBT do?

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    D: Decline the paid meal, because its value is over $10. A meal paid for by the family is a gift. At $40 it exceeds the $10 limit, and a social dinner also adds a personal role to the relationship.

    • A: The family is still a current client family, and the meal is worth more than $10.
    • B: The family would still be paying for a meal worth more than $10.
    • C: Calling it a party does not change the value of the gift.

    Task F.8 · RBT Ethics Code 1.11 · RBT Ethics Code 1.10

  9. Question 9Discrete-trial teaching is built on the three-term contingency. What are its three terms?

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    B: Antecedent, behavior, consequence. The three-term contingency is antecedent, behavior and consequence. In a discrete trial these are the instruction (SD), the learner's response, and the reinforcer or error correction that follows.

    • A: These are phases of an intervention, not the parts of a contingency.
    • C: These are teaching steps for building independence, not the three-term contingency.
    • D: The intertrial interval is a pause between trials; the third term of the contingency is the consequence.

    Task C.3 · 40-hour curriculum section A · 40-hour curriculum section E

  10. Question 10In a functional analysis, an attention session lasted 10 minutes with 12 instances of yelling. A demand session lasted 5 minutes with 9 instances of yelling. Which session had the higher rate, and what was that rate?

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    D: Demand: 1.8 per minute. Because the sessions were different lengths, compare rates. Attention: 12 ÷ 10 = 1.2 per minute. Demand: 9 ÷ 5 = 1.8 per minute. The demand session had the higher rate.

    • A: 1.2 per minute is the correct attention rate, but it is lower than the demand rate.
    • B: 12 is the attention count for the whole 10-minute session, not a rate per minute.
    • C: 0.9 comes from dividing the demand count by 10 minutes instead of 5.

    Task B.3 · 40-hour curriculum section D · Task A.6

  11. Question 11A caregiver asks the RBT to leave a behavior out of the session note because the family is embarrassed about it. What should the RBT do?

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    A: Document it accurately and tell the supervisor. Notes must be accurate and complete. The RBT can be respectful and let the supervisor talk with the family about their concern.

    • B: Leaving it out makes the record inaccurate.
    • C: An email is not the record; the behavior belongs in the note.
    • D: Vague wording makes the note less accurate.

    Task E.4 · RBT Ethics Code 2.02

  12. Question 12During one home session, a caregiver raises four items. Which one should the RBT bring to the supervisor first?

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    B: The client has started banging their head and has a new bruise. Concerns about safety and possible harm to the client come first. Scheduling, reinforcer ideas and paperwork questions still get passed on, but they can follow.

    • A: A reinforcer suggestion is useful but not urgent.
    • C: A routine scheduling request is not urgent.
    • D: A paperwork question can wait behind a safety concern.

    Task E.1 · RBT Ethics Code 2.01 · 40-hour curriculum section F

  13. Question 13An adult scratches a healing insect bite, and the scratching briefly relieves the itch. If scratching is maintained by this relief, which type of reinforcement maintains it?

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    D: Automatic negative reinforcement. The behavior removes an aversive sensation (the itch) without anyone else involved. Removal of a stimulus is negative reinforcement, and because the behavior produces it directly, it is automatic.

    • A: Social negative reinforcement requires another person to remove the aversive event, such as ending a task.
    • B: Automatic positive reinforcement adds a sensation; here an aversive sensation is removed.
    • C: No one delivers anything, and something is removed rather than added.

    Task D.1 · 40-hour curriculum section A

  14. Question 14While teaching a client to use a spoon, an RBT keeps their hand close to the client's hand. The RBT guides only as much as needed at each moment, lightens the touch as soon as the client starts the motion, and moves the hand away as the client continues alone. Which procedure is this?

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    A: Graduated guidance. Graduated guidance gives physical help only as needed and reduces it immediately as the learner begins to respond, sometimes ending with the RBT's hand simply following, or shadowing, the learner's movement.

    • B: Most-to-least prompting steps down prompt levels across trials or sessions by a criterion; here help changes moment to moment within one response.
    • C: A full physical prompt guides the whole response; here help is lessened during the response.
    • D: Least-to-most prompting waits for an independent attempt and then adds help; here help starts close and is reduced.

    Task C.7 · 40-hour curriculum section E

  15. Question 15During a skills assessment, when should the RBT record each of the client's responses?

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    C: Right after each response occurs. Recording each response right after it occurs keeps the data accurate. Recording later from memory leads to errors.

    • A: Waiting until the end of the session relies on memory and invites errors.
    • B: Recording from memory hours later is even less accurate.
    • D: Incorrect responses are data too; leaving them out inflates the results.

    Task B.2 · 40-hour curriculum section D · Task A.8

  16. Question 16Data from partial interval, whole interval and momentary time sampling procedures are usually summarized as:

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    A: the percentage of intervals scored. Each interval is scored as an occurrence or a nonoccurrence. The summary is the number of scored intervals divided by the total number of intervals, times 100.

    • B: Responses per minute is rate, which needs a count of every response; interval procedures do not count responses.
    • C: Average length per response is mean duration, which requires timing each occurrence.
    • D: Time from cue to response is latency, a continuous measure.

    Task A.2 · 40-hour curriculum section C

  17. Question 17Two clients have about the same average number of tantrums per session, but one client's data bounce widely from session to session while the other's stay close together. Which property of the data differs?

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    B: Variability. Variability is how much the data points differ from one another. Similar averages can come with very different amounts of bounce.

    • A: The averages are about the same, so level is similar.
    • C: The difference described is bounce, not the overall direction.
    • D: Rate is a measure of how often behavior occurs, and the averages are similar.

    Task A.7 · 40-hour curriculum section C

  18. Question 18An RBT uses partial interval recording with 30 intervals. Hitting is marked in 12 of them. What should the RBT report?

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    C: 40% of intervals. Divide scored intervals by total intervals and multiply by 100: 12 ÷ 30 = 0.40, or 40% of intervals.

    • A: 12 is the number of scored intervals, not a percentage.
    • B: 18 is the number of intervals without hitting, not a percentage.
    • D: 60% would mean 18 of the 30 intervals were scored.

    Task A.2 · 40-hour curriculum section C

  19. Question 19If an RBT delivers the reinforcer at the peak of an extinction burst, what is the client most likely to learn?

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    C: That more intense behavior produces the reinforcer. Reinforcing behavior at its most intense level teaches the client to escalate. It also adds intermittent reinforcement, which makes the behavior harder to extinguish.

    • A: The behavior did produce the reinforcer, so this is the opposite of what is learned.
    • B: The reinforcer followed the problem behavior, not a replacement behavior.
    • D: A single reinforcer after intense behavior can strengthen that behavior.

    Task D.6 · 40-hour curriculum section E

  20. Question 20After an observation, the supervisor tells an RBT that their prompt fading was too fast. The RBT is not sure how to do it correctly. What should the RBT do?

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    D: Ask the supervisor to model it and let them practice. Asking for modeling and rehearsal with feedback is the right way to address a training need. RBTs take action to improve their performance after feedback (Standard 2.03).

    • A: An outside method may not match the client's plan.
    • B: Stopping fading changes the plan and may build prompt dependence.
    • C: Continuing the same way ignores the feedback.

    Task E.2 · RBT Ethics Code 2.03

  21. Question 21In a store, a child screams, and the caregiver hands over candy. The screaming stops right away. Over time, the caregiver hands over candy sooner and sooner after screaming starts. What best explains the caregiver's behavior?

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    A: Negative reinforcement, because giving candy ends the screaming. For the caregiver, giving candy ends an aversive event (the screaming), and giving candy has increased. That is negative reinforcement of the caregiver's behavior, while the child's screaming may be positively reinforced by the candy.

    • B: Quiet is the end of the screaming; giving candy works by removing the screaming, which makes it negative reinforcement.
    • C: The screaming comes before the caregiver's response; it is not a consequence that decreases giving candy.
    • D: Negative punishment would decrease giving candy, but it has increased.

    Task C.1 · 40-hour curriculum section A

  22. Question 22Midway through a paired-stimulus assessment, a child repeatedly pushes the items away and leaves the table. What is the most appropriate response?

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    A: Stop presenting trials and inform the supervisor. Pushing items away and leaving are signs the child is not assenting to the activity. The RBT stops pressing the task and informs the supervisor, who decides how to proceed.

    • B: Pushing items away is not a selection and should not be recorded as one.
    • C: Physically returning a child who is withdrawing assent is not appropriate without direction from the supervisor.
    • D: Continuing to present trials ignores the child's behavior and yields poor data.

    Task B.1 · 40-hour curriculum section D · 40-hour curriculum section B

  23. Question 23A full-session DRL plan gives a reward when a client curses 4 or fewer times in a session. Across three sessions, the client cursed 3, 5 and 4 times. In how many sessions did the client earn the reward?

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    B: 2. The criterion is 4 or fewer. Sessions with 3 and 4 curses meet it; the session with 5 does not. The client earned the reward in 2 sessions.

    • A: 1 treats 4 curses as above the criterion, but "4 or fewer" includes 4.
    • C: 3 includes the session with 5 curses, which is above the criterion.
    • D: 0 ignores that two sessions were at or below the criterion.

    Task D.3 · 40-hour curriculum section E

  24. Question 24A client's plan teaches tacts through discrete-trial teaching. The RBT thinks natural environment training would work better. What should the RBT do?

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    A: Run the plan as written and tell the supervisor. RBTs implement the plan their supervisor designs and bring suggestions to the supervisor, who decides whether to change the teaching approach.

    • B: Changing procedures, even as a test, is a plan change only the supervisor can make.
    • C: Using an unplanned procedure without the supervisor's knowledge is not following the plan.
    • D: Caregivers can share input, but the supervisor makes changes to the plan.

    Task C.4 · RBT Ethics Code 2.02 · RBT Ethics Code 2.06

  25. Question 25Before a shaping session, what is most important to confirm about the planned reinforcer?

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    D: That the client currently wants it. Shaping works only if the consequence actually reinforces the approximations. Checking that the client currently wants the item, for example by offering a choice as the plan directs, helps ensure it will be effective.

    • A: The same item may not be preferred today, since preferences change.
    • B: Reinforcers do not have to be edible; many non-edible items and activities work well.
    • C: Free access all day can produce satiation and weaken the reinforcer.

    Task C.10 · 40-hour curriculum section E

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What this test covers

5 easier, 12 exam-level and 8 harder questions. Each task link opens its study page.